texts: Rokeach's remez to ayin tachas ayin meaning mamon

texts:
The Torah says (Exodus 21:24) עין תחת עין, an eye for an eye, which is understood to mean ממון, monetary compensation.

I saw this remez by the Rokeach (here, result #2) and don't understand it:

  הפסוק י"ב תיבות ויכול אדם לקראתו בלא נידנוד שפתיים, לומר שאין לומר עין תחת עין ממש אלא ממון

  The verse has twelve words, and a person can recite them without moving their lips. This tells us not to say "eye for an eye" is literal; rather monetary compensation

While what he says may be true (yet difficult to accomplish), I don't understand the jump that therefore it must mean monetary compensation. Where did that inference come from?


texts: For those who hold by wearing a gartel for davening (for separating the upper and lower body), is it necessary when already wearing a belt?


texts:
Why is it that a baby born on Shabbos via C-Section cannot have a bris 8 days later [on Shabbos]?

Source: Twin Bris conundrum


texts:
Is there a salutation/greeting recognizing the last day of Channukah for my Jewish friends?

At the beginning of this holiday, I wish them well. Is there a similar phrase that I should use as this holiday ends that is a sign of respect for them and their beliefs? (that I as a non-Jewish person can/should say)


texts: An Aspect of Eretz Yisroel in Every Country?

texts:
According to Chazal, Eretz Yisroel is the birthplace of the world (ex: Rambam sefer Avodah Hilchos Bais Habechira 2:2). But, is there any source claiming that each nation and land has a "spark" or "piece" of Eretz Yisroel in it?

As the birthplace of the world, it stands to reason that it would pass on some (though, certainly not all) of its spiritual influence. EY is it's own spiritual and physical reality; so that's not the point of my question. What I'm asking is how this reality is influencing the rest of the world.


texts: If voting doesn't do anything, should one vote?

texts:
All translations below are my own.
Lev Melech B'Yad Hashem
Shlomo HaMelech tells us (Mishlei 21:1):

פלגי מים לב מלך ביד יהוה על כל אשר יחפץ יטנו
[Like] streams of water is the heart of a king in the hand of Hashem: toward whatever He wants He turns it.

The commentators seem to understand this to mean that Hashem influences world policy through the leaders of the world. Take, for instance, the Ralbag:

כי פעולות המלך ומחשבותיו הם מוגבלות מהש''י והוא כמו שליח הש''י במה שיעשהו מדבר המלכות
...for the actions of the king and his thoughts originated from Hashem, blessed be He. He is like an agent of Hashem, blessed be He, in that which he does through his power of kingship...

You can debate all you want whether a president is considered a king. But it's  completely irrelevant. If the statement is that it's ultimately Hashem dictating policy, then whichever candidate gets elected will do the same policies. Or, if you have a hard time swallowing that Trump will keep Obamacare or Hillary will build a wall, then perhaps you could say that Hashem will influence the election to elect His desired candidate with His desired policies. Either way, the effect is the same: Why should I be voting tomorrow if my vote doesn't matter? According to the first formulation, whoever wins the election will enact the same policies. According to the second formulation, you can't beat Hashem at rigging the elections. (Go tell that to Trump.)
Mathematically Pointless
According to Wikipedia, there were 235,248,000-odd eligible voters in the 2012 election, under 130,000,000 of which actually voted. No matter how you slice these facts, my individual vote is pointless. Even in a vote of 100,000 people my vote doesn't make such a big difference: certainly in a vote of over 1000% that size does it not make a difference.
Please don't tell me "If everyone followed that logic we wouldn't have anyone voting." That may very well be true. But until that point my vote doesn't matter. When the numbers change then we can knock this point off the list. Our country will probably be in deep trouble at that point as well.
So, then, if my vote doesn't count any more than a grain of sand on the beach, why should I bother doing my hishtadlus? It's not called hishtadlus if it doesn't matter what I choose. The choice, then, of whether to vote is the same as the choice of who to vote for. Regardless of my decision, the result will be the same.

In summary, then, should I vote, if from a hashkafic perspective it seems pointless?

Edit: There are several good points raised in the answers, but none of them satisfactorily answer the question. To clarify, I'm looking for an answer that not only satisfactorily explains why I have to vote but also why I have to vote for an actual candidate rather than Mickey Mouse.


texts:
According to Sikhism, Guru Nanak was the first Sikh prophet. He disappeared in a river for three days and returned to spread a message.   After his death Sikhs built The Golden Temple at Amritsar, which has four doors, so all peoples of faith may enter since Sikhism is irrespective of their religion, caste, color, or creed, and status.
Sikhs are not Hindus. They are not polytheists. They are monotheists. They say:

"G-d is formless, pervading everything. He is beyond space and time.
There is One G-d whose name is Truth. G-d has no form, no country, and
no religion."

Thus, the Sikh faith seems to hold that there is only one G-d. Do we consider them idolatry, or are they close to Muslims in the sense that they worship one G-d, they are not Avodah Zarah? And if so, are Jews allowed to worship in the Golden Temple?


texts: This has been asked in the past with regard to a muktzeh key, and i was uncertain if it would be the same with something like a usb. If i have a keychain with a usb on it that i wear week round, come shabbos is it ok to wear it and only use the housekey? The usb is one of the flat variety, unobtrusive and plain black (although i doubt it matters).


texts: If two separate studies intersect, is it a good sign?

texts:
There is an expression that I have always heard, which is that when two separate Torah studies one is learning happen to reference each other, it is a good sign. A variant of this that I've heard is that it is a sign one is studying Torah Lishmah (for its own sake).

Does anyone know the source for this, if there is one?


texts: Why both a גל and a מצבה - Breishit 31:45 - 46?

texts:
In Breishit 31:45, Ya'akov takes a stone and creates a מצבה (my translation - "monument")

In verse 46, he takes several stones and creates a גל (my translation "heap").

Both of them were used as "witnesses" (See verse 52). Why were both of these necessary? What was the purpose of each of these that the other didn't accomplish?

I couldn't locate anything on this in commentaries (used Mikra'ot Gedolot). I'd esp. be interested in the "historical" aspect of this practice. I'm assuming that at that time it was common for people to make a "peace treaty" by establishing a pile of stones. I somewhat understand this idea, here, as in verse 52, Lavan says that the stone pile should act as a "border" that neither side will cross that border to harm the other. But, again, why do we need both sets of rocks?


texts: Is there any source, halachic or otherwise, for an aversion to having one's picture taken?


texts:
Bereshit 3:22:

  …וְלָקַח גַּם מֵעֵץ הַחַיִּים וְאָכַל וָחַי לְעֹלָם

In search for a definition of the word עֹלָם (Olam), as in this verse, I found different translations: 'Universe', 'World', 'Eternal', 'Everlasting', 'Forever', 'Perpetual', 'Endless', 'Beyond'. etc.

This specific verse is often translated as something like: 'forever' as a reference to the life of Adam (living he will live and subsist for ever).

But what is the best definition for this word?


texts:
The Taz writes in his Divrei David (Genesis 1:23) regarding a Midrash:

  ואין לנו להפקיע דברי חכמים מפשטן

"We should not remove words of the Sages from their simple interpretations."

Does the Taz ever interpret a Midrash non-literally?


texts: Can you have almond milk on Rosh Hashana?

texts:
The custom in my community is not to eat or cook with whole nuts during Elul. But I don't know whether pulverized or otherwise disembodied nuts --for example, nuts as an ingredient in a processed food such as almond milk -- are, in general, acceptable.

This article seems to suggest that--according to a strict/mehadur opinion--while obvious nuts are prohibited from the beginning of selichos through Hoshana Raba, one may eat blended-up nuts after Rosh Hashana.

Is this correct? (Have I understood it correctly?)

What are different communities' positions on this inyan?

Related: What type of nuts may not be eaten during Elul?


texts: Answering questions on a website that were asked on Shabbos

texts: Is allowing questions to be asked on a website on Shabbos against Halacha? And is answering them helping encourage Chilul Shabbos?


texts: How long must people wait in shul for a minyan?

texts:
Shulchan Aruch emphasizes the importance of davening the Amidah with the rest of the tzibbur.

If one is in shul and there are 8 or 9 people, should everyone wait before starting Amidah to see if others may soon come in to form a minyan? How long are they required to wait? Do they need to wait at all, assuming that they will not pass a z'man like last time for Mincha.


texts:
In a website (http://www.jewfaq.org/prophet.htm) I found the following quotation:
The Talmud teaches that there were hundreds of thousands of prophets: twice as many as the number of people who left Egypt, which was 600,000. But most of the prophets conveyed messages that were intended solely for their own generation and were not reported in scripture.
But it doesn't give the exact source and doesn't explain much. I have many questions. Where they prophesizing only to Israel or to the nations too? Does anybody know the exact source and/or any other related sources about this subject of the total number of prophets? Do we know any extra information like their names, messages, locations, nation they belonged to, timeframe, etc?
Thank you all in advance!
All the best!


texts: Why are there varying vowels on proper nouns in Megillas Ester?

texts:
In Megillas Ester, several proper nouns (such as Mordechai, and Shushan) use komatz and patach interchangeably. In sefardi pronunciation this does not make much of a difference, but in ashkenazi pronunciation, this makes names sound noticeably different: MordechAi vs. MordechOy; ShushAn vs. ShushOn. Is there a hard rule that rules the correct nikkud for these?

In addition, there are instances where the word "she came" has varying vowels with letter Beys and Veys, such as to make these words sound "B-a-a" "V-a-a." What is the rule there?


texts: Help me find a source for glossing "sefer" (in Shabbat 14a) as "Torah, Nevi'im, and Ketuvim"

texts:
In Shabbat 14a we find a discussion about the Rabbinic enactment that a book (sefer) renders one's hands unclean (which is itself discussed in the Mishnah Yadayim 3:5).  Long ago I found a source (which I wrote down) that on 14a Rashi glosses "sefer" as referring to "all kitvei ha-kodesh -- Torah, Nevi'im and Ketuvim".  But I just checked that daf and I don't see anything like that in the Rashi, which means I must have gotten that gloss from somewhere else (or it is there and I am just not seeing it for some reason).

Can anybody help me track down the source for that gloss?

To be clear, I am aware that there are extensive discussions elsewhere about the status of individual books (Esther, Kohelet, Shir ha-Shirim) and whether or not they are m'tamei et hayadayim.  I am not looking for that.


texts: Why Yehoshua **Bin** Nun and not Yehoshua **Ben** Nun

texts:
The Torah refers to Yehoshua as Yehoshua Bin Nun. (See here for an example).

Why  Bin Nun and not Ben Nun?

Are there any places in Tanach where he is referred to as Ben Nun?

Is there anyone else in Tanach who is referred to as Bin instead of Ben?


texts:
Someone I know is on a high-fiber health-conscious diet. During the year, she only eats multi-grain breads.

She is wondering if anyone makes a "multi-grain" matzah, i.e. a mix of whole wheat, oat barn, perhaps barley, etc. If anyone makes these shmurah, even better. Does anyone know of any such brand and where she can get this in the U.S.?


texts: What's her husband doing at the gates in the middle of her song?

texts:
Eishes Chayil is a song sung traditionally on Friday nights. It's the last 22 verses of Mishlei/Proverbs. It speaks about a "Woman of Valor", and literally does nothing but sing her praises. Well, almost.
Every verse is about something admirable about this woman1, except for one verse, Mishlei 31:23 (Chabad.org):

כג. נוֹדָע בַּשְּׁעָרִים בַּעְלָהּ בְּשִׁבְתּוֹ עִם זִקְנֵי אָרֶץ
23: Her husband is known in the gates, when he sits with the elders of the
land.

While this is nice and all, this seems a little out of place; how is this a praise of the Woman of Valor?
Bonus points if you find an explanation of why Shlomo Hamelech chose to phrase it this way, instead of just stating her praise directly.
Yes, this is a bit of a softball. But it was a real question that I had. Best answer wins.

1: Interpreted as referring to the Jewish woman, and also to the Shabbos and the Torah.


texts:
In the description of the menorah in Sh'mot 25:31, there is a requirement that the menorah be hammered ("The menorah shall be made of hammered work;") and Rashi explains that it is to be hammered out of a single ingot, "it must not be made in sections, [which can be removed]. Its branches and its lamps should not be made individually and then attached, as is the custom of the smiths [through a process] called solderez [in French], soldering, but it [the menorah] must come [be constructed] entirely from one piece [of gold]-beaten with a hammer and cut with a tool, and the branches separated on both sides".

This is an arduous and difficult process. A simpler process might be the construction of a mold, with the molten gold poured into it to make, out of a single pouring, the entire of the menorah, fully formed. Would this satisfy the requirements of the pasuk?

Initially, my concern was that there might be no hammering involved and that the pasuk was precise in its demand, but then I read that according to Rashi, "Since Moses found difficulty with it [i.e., figuring out how to form the menorah], the Holy One, blessed is He, said to him, “Cast the talent [equivalent to sixty-four pounds of gold] into the fire, and it will be made by itself.” " Apparently, the actual menorah which was used in the mishkan was not hammered. So would one made in the future have to be hammered if it could be poured instead?


texts: What time does a bar mitzvah come into effect?

texts: At what halachic time does a boy having his bar mitzvah become chayav b'mitzvot? It seems to me that the most likely times are either shkia or tzeit.


texts: Source that a woman is considered to have a bris milah

texts: I recall learning, I think in mesechtas kiddushin, that a woman is the (halachic?) equivalent of a man who has had a bris milah performed. In other words, since she does not have the same organ she is viewed as if she is a person who has had a bris performed, not as a person who does not have a need to have one performed. What is the source for this idea?


texts: Does food need to be double-wrapped for the fridge?

texts: I am familiar with the idea ( What's the halachic advantage of double (or triple) wrapping food? ) that double-wrapping is necessary for a halachic separation in certain kashrus contexts. However, does this apply only to hot/liquid food? Or must one also double-wrap food before placing it on a countertop or in the fridge (i.e., with food that is either non-kosher or of the other moiety)?


texts: Is there any shul where you have to takes off you shoes before entering the beit knesset?

texts: Are there any particular Jewish communities where the congregants remove their shoes before entering the Beit Kneset?


texts: what vowels is the gemora trying to replace the word ּיִקְנְוּ with יִקָנו or יַׁקְנו

texts:
I was learning with my chavrusa i used the Hebrew artscroll and he used the English version we bumped into this gemora,

הכא כתיב (דברים כב, יג) כי יקח בבעל תלה רחמנא
התם נמי כתיב (ירמיהו לב, מד) שדות בכסף יקנו
קרי ביה יקנו
מאי טעמא קרית ביה יקנו משום דכתיב ומכר ה"נ קרי ביה כי יקח

what vowels is the gemora trying to replace the word ּיִקְנְוּ with it יִקָנו or יַׁקְנו
In the English version it was spelled ּיַקְנו ּand the Hebrew version was spelled ּיִקָנו which one is correct and does it at all make a difference


texts: V'Al Brischa SheChasamta Bivsoreinu - ועל בריתך שחתמת בבשרנו - does a lady say this?

texts: In Bentching (grace after meals) - both in the Ashkenazic and in the Sefardic version - we say V'Al Brischa SheChasamta Bivsoreinu - ועל בריתך שחתמת בבשרנו - "and for Your covenant, which you sealed on our flesh". This refers, presumably, to the Brit Mila. Does a lady say these words? Why?


texts: May a lady take a pregnancy test on Shabbos?

texts: Are there any issues with taking a pregnancy test (non-electronic) on Shabbos?


texts: stubbing your toe and peace with you wife, what is the connection

texts:
one of the reasons for lighting shabbos candles is "peace in the home"

shulchan aurch harav 263.1 explains "peace in the home" that not to stub you foot on wood or stone

the mishna torah megila 4:14 seems to hint that "peace in the home" is peace between husband and wife,
and it is used as a saying for this until today

is there a connection between these to?
please explain
sources appreciated

related
Where do the words sholom bayis come from?
How did the term "Shalom Bayit" come to mean "matrimonial harmony"?

related end of halacha 5 here http://www.chabad.org/3447016/
and https://www.sefaria.org/Mishnah_Berurah.250.5/


texts: What was Anglo Jewry's stance just before the establishment of the State of Israel?

texts:
By 1947 or so, many Jews emphatically wanted a State of Israel, and for the British to end their control of then-Palestine.
How did this play out for the Jews of the United Kingdom? Did its United Synagogue have an official stance? Any notable sermons on the subject by its leaders then? It must have left them in a very awkward position.


texts: Where can I find online a list of every bracha? Including natural phenomena, foods, special occasions, etc.


texts: How does waterproofing the Ark from the inside help practically?

texts:
Rashi 6(14) quoting the Medrash and Gemorah Sotah, explains that the Ark was waterproofed both outside and inside because of the force of the waters.

Practically, I do not see what benefit would be gained from applying pitch on the inside.

Unless maybe the idea was that the pitch should penetrate into the wood?

Any sources to answer the question?


texts: Why is it Ok to have tzizit without techelet?

texts:
The Mishna in Menachos 4:1 says that the mitzvah of the white tzizit is not gone if there is no techelet, and the mitzvah of the techelet is not gone if there is no white.  That seems a straight forward enough statement.

However, the gemorah's reponse to this statement is essentially a "Are you crazy? How could the Mishna say this?"  They then comment that "Obviously, they mean if the tzizit are torn or ripped, it doesn't invalidate your tzizit as long as a "tuft" of the blue is remaining, or vice versa. They then go on to ask what the minimum size of tizit must be before they get turned into tufts.

When Techelet no longer became available during the Geonic period, they obviously said it was ok to have tzizit without techelet.

Two questions:

What was their rationale, i.e. how did they ignore the Gemora, or is there another gemora which contradicts the Gemora in Manachot?
Was the idea of hinuch, so we don't forget about tzizit at all, enough of a reason to possibly violate a Torah commandment of purposefully putting on a four corner garment to put on incomplete tzizit?

(see Sefaria for translation of sources that led to this question: Menachos 38a-40a)


texts: Source: God only gives people what they can handle

texts:
I have heard it quoted many times in a variety of contexts the following words: "Hashem only gives people what they can handle" or "Hashem never gives people more than they can handle."

I assumed the source of this statement was the Gemarah "Ayn HKB"H ba b'trunyah im briyosav", however, this Gemarah is referring to a different point: God does not demand from a person more than they can do. The idea I am quoting is that God does not give anyone a challenge they cannot overcome, not that God doesn't expect one to overcome an overwhelming challenge.

I'm looking for a source that confirms or denies the statement as I heard it.


texts:
After the story of shimshon and Delilah and the sum of 1100 shekels it goes onto the story of Micah the 1100 shekels he stole from his mother.

Could the mother of micah whos name is not mentioned be Delilah?


texts: What is Rambam's source that the Sages issued a command to not teach your daughter Torah?

texts:
The Mishnah in Sotah (3:4) states:

אם יש לה זכות היתה תולה לה יש זכות תולה שנה אחת יש זכות תולה ב' שנים יש זכות תולה ג' שנים מכאן אומר בן עזאי חייב אדם ללמד את בתו תורה שאם תשתה תדע שהזכות תולה לה ר"א אומר כל המלמד בתו תורה לומדה תפלות
IF SHE POSSESSED A MERIT, IT [CAUSES THE WATER] TO SUSPEND ITS EFFECT UPON HER. SOME MERIT SUSPENDS THE EFFECT FOR ONE YEAR, ANOTHER FOR TWO YEARS, AND ANOTHER FOR THREE YEARS. HENCE DECLARED BEN AZZAI, A MAN IS UNDER THE OBLIGATION TO TEACH HIS DAUGHTER TORAH, SO THAT IF SHE HAS TO DRINK [THE WATER OF BITTERNESS], SHE MAY KNOW THAT THE MERIT SUSPENDS ITS EFFECT. R. ELIEZER SAYS: WHOEVER TEACHES HIS DAUGHTER TORAH TEACHES HER OBSCENITY.
(Soncino translation; capitals in original)

In this answer I made the following point:

Here we have a tannaic dispute wherein one tanna asserts that teaching girls Torah is obligatory. He does not specify what forms of Torah he is referring to. The other tanna does not state that teaching girls Torah is forbidden; rather, he states that teaching girls Torah has a negative consequence.
(Emphasis added)

However, when Rambam codifies this law  (Hilchot Talmud Torah 1:13) he writes as follows:

ואע"פ שיש לה שכר צוו חכמים שלא ילמד אדם את בתו תורה מפני שרוב הנשים אין דעתם מכוונת להתלמד אלא הן מוציאות דברי תורה לדברי הבאי לפי עניות דעתן אמרו חכמים כל המלמד את בתו תורה כאילו למדה תפלות
Even though she will receive a reward, the Sages commanded that a person should not teach his daughter Torah, because most women cannot concentrate their attention on study, and thus transform the words of Torah into idle matters because of their lack of understanding.
[Thus,] our Sages declared: "Whoever teaches his daughter Torah is like one who teaches her tales and parables."
(Touger translation)

Rambam here explicitly states that the Sages commanded one to not teach his daughter Torah. Yet as I mentioned above, the Mishnah does not actually seem to say that. It just presents the tannaic opinion that there is a negative effect of teaching Torah to women.
How, then, did Rambam extend this to say that the Sages actually issued a command to not teach them?
I am aware that in the parallel passage in the Jerusalem Talmud, an opinion is presented which states that the Torah should be burned rather than given to women, which is somewhat closer to a "command" to not teach them. However, I did not see the standard Rambam commentaries cite the Jerusalem Talmud as Rambam's source for this statement; they cited the version in the Babylonian Talmud which does not say this.1
So did Rambam have a different version of the text in Sotah that did in fact say that the Sages commanded to not teach women Torah? Did he somehow extrapolate this command from the text that we have, even though it does not appear to say that? Was there some other external source that he was referring to?
It is perhaps noteworthy that he first says that they commanded not to teach women and only then mentions the statement that teaching them is like teaching them tiflut, perhaps implying that these are two separate things.

1. The relatively recent commentary Avodat Hamelech by R. Menachem Karakovsky does indeed cite the passage from the Jerusalem Talmud


texts: Why does a Baal Tokeiah wear a new garment on the second day of Rosh Hashanah

texts: I remember reading that a Baal Tokeiah is supposed to wear a new garment on the second day of Rosh Hashanah and it may have something to do with a Shechiyanu Bracha that he makes? Can someone please explain above ?Thanks


texts: How can the Oruch LeNer claim that Pinchas came to enquire if he as a Kohen could do the act of zealotry?

texts:
Bamidbor 25 (7 & 8) records the act of zealotry performed by Pinchas. On possuk 7, Rashi says,

  AND PHINEAS SAW — He saw what was being done and he was thereby
  reminded of the law on this subject (Sanhedrin 82a). He said to Moses,
  “I have received a tradition from you: he who has intercourse with an
  Aramean (heathen) woman, zealous people may attack him”. He replied to
  him: “Let him who reads the letter be the agent for executing it”; —
  straightway, ויקח רמח בידו HE TOOK A JAVELIN IN HIS HAND, etc.
  (Sanhedrin 82a).

The Birkat Asher on the Torah points out

  ואם בא הקנאי ליטול רשות מבית הדין, אין מורין לו אף על פי שהוא בשעת
  מעשה וכו' (ראה רמ"א חו"מ תכה, ד)

  that the halacha (Choshen Mishpot, Rema 425 (4)) is that if the
  zealous person comes to ask of the Beth Din whether he may perform his
  act, we do not so instruct him even at the time of the action.

This creates an apparent problem in the discussion with Moshe recorded by Rashi above. The  Birkat Asher has various answers to this question. One is from the Oruch LeNer who says

  לפי ה"ערוך לנר" לא בא פינחס להמלך במשה על עצם דין "קנאין פוגעין בו",
  אלא מסופק היה אם מותר לו לקנא לה' בהיותו כהן   That Pinchas did not
  come to ask Moshe on the halacha in this case but he was in doubt as
  to whether he could do the act of  zealotry, as he was a Kohen and
  he might become tomei through the action.

I do not understand this answer because at the time that  Pinchas did his act, he was not yet a Kohen as Rashi points out Bamidbor 25 (13)

  A COVENANT OF AN EVERLASTING PRIESTHOOD — for although the priesthood
  had already been given to Aaron’s descendants (cf. Exodus 28:40-41),
  it was given only to Aaron and his sons who had been anointed together
  with him and to their offspring whom they might beget after they had
  been anointed. But Pinchas who had been born prior to that and had not
  been anointed, had not as yet attained the status of priesthood until
  now. So, too, do we read in Zevachim 101b: Pinchas did not become a
  priest until he had slain Zimri.

So how can the Oruch LeNer claim that Pinchas came to enquire if he as a Kohen could do the act of  zealotry?

related: Question about the actions of Pinchas when he killed Zimri but not about the answer of the Oruch LeNer.


texts:
It is a widespread Ashkenazi minhog not to name a child after someone who is living. From where can this custom be sourced? Why is this so?

I would assume it is because it has some negative kabbalistic significance.


texts: If a King can't forgive, how did they ask Yosef, King of Egypt, for forgiveness?

texts:
The Posuk says (בראשית פרק נ' י''ז):

  כֹּה תֹאמְרוּ לְיוֹסֵף אָנָּא שָׂא נָא פֶּשַׁע אַחֶיךָ וְחַטָּאתָם

Translated as:

"Please, forgive now your brothers' transgression and their sin"

The question is how could they ask a King for forgiveness, as we know the Gemara (כתובות י''ז ע''א) says "A king who forgives his honor, the forgiveness of honor does not work"?


texts: Daniel seems to play a significant role in the Megila. The Medrash says that Memuchan was Daniel. It is also mentioned that Hasach was Daniel. Interesting to note is that the Gematria of Daniel and the Gematria of Haman are both 95. Why is Daniel's name never mentioned outright? Why was he incognito?


texts:
What is the Halacha re LISTENING to someone speaking in a microphone on Shabbat.
For example if I walk into a room and someone is lecturing/speaking on a microphone an I permitted to listen


texts: Minhag of bothering the chazzan on Simchas Torah

texts:
I have seen the custom of bothering the chazzan during the musaf service on Simchas Torah.  I have seen people tie the chazzan's gartel to a chair, or try to move the chazzan to a diffrent place.  I even heard that in one shul they threw the chazzan into the mikvah!

What is the source and when did it start?  It seems from a halachic standpoint that is 100% assur to do so (see Hilchos Teffilah in Shulcahn Aruch and Aruch Hashulchan about how one should act for davening).


texts:
I have the opportunity to reach out to someone who will be getting married soon, to discuss the laws of family purity.

He has no real connections to any religious community at this point in life so there is no hope for him to reach out to anyone for this.

He scoffs at most modern rabbinic rulings but still seems to hold Biblical and straight Talmudic law somewhat in esteem.

Therefore, what I would like is a book or any source that goes step by step laying down what is a Biblical law, what is a Talmudic law, what is a rishon/shulchan aruch law, what is achron law, what is a stringency that one should keep, one that is nice to keep etc. All laid out in an easy and accessible way so that at least whatever level he and his future wife decide to keep, they will at least have something to work off.

English is preferred, but Hebrew would be ok too. Once it's set up in this format, it should be easy to translate.

(To be clear, Rabbi Forst's type of books are not helpful here. A small book like ohel aryeh but in English in the aforementioned format is what I'm looking for)

Does anyone have any information regarding such a work?


texts: Rosh Hashanah Amidah - Neshama be-apo or neshamah ve-apo?

texts:
In the final paragraph of the bracha of kedushas hayom / malchuyos which we recite in every Rosh Hashanah amidah, we find the phrase "ויאמר כל אשר נשמה באפו". Is there a dagesh in the 'ב' of 'באפו'?

The reason I'm asking is that every Artscroll publication I've checked has it without a dagesh in musaf, and with a dagesh in every other tefillah. Is this deliberate, or simply a printing mistake?


texts: Heter Iskah practical implications for a private loan

texts:
This question is about practical differences in receiving a loan from a "Heter Iskah" certified bank and from not certified one, with the same term and percentage.

In other words, besides the background Halachic permission, are there any ramifications for the borrower?


texts: Would humans with kosher-signs be kosher?

texts: If I genetically engineer a human to have split feet and to have a second stomach so they can chew their cud, can I eat them?


texts: How do the remaining Kohanim know that they are Kohanim?

texts:
I just recently learned that there are still Kohanim, members of the priestly family of Aaron, alive today. I had thought, mistakenly, that they had vanished with the destruction of Herod's temple in 70CE.

My question is, how do the remaining Kohanim know that they are in fact descendants of Aaron?


texts:
This question assumes that one should accept his punishment after being convicted of a capital offense.

Should one turn himself in to (Jewish) authorities after committing an offense for which he knows he will receive capital punishment? Assume that he would otherwise get away with the crime because the authorities would be unable to prosecute him: there was proper warning of two witnesses, but he was able to flee and is a fugitive.

Also assume that he would do tshuva and would not commit that crime again. Does turning oneself in constitute a violation of pikuach nefesh?

Obviously, halacha does not allow people to commit these capital offenses in the first place, but assume this question is bedieved, after he committed the capital offense.


texts: Which of the *Zugos* were in charge during the Chanukah story?

texts:
Pirkei Avos tells us of a chain of Torah leadership from Shimon HaTzadik (who lived in the times of Alexander the Great), to Antignos Ish Socho, to the pairs of leaders after that.

On whose watch did the whole Hellenism/Seleucid/revolt thing happen? Seems like the stars of the show then were just the kohanim. Who was Nassi, and what did they do? (Feels like the Mishnah is kind of glossing over that part.)


texts: When are you allowed to touch your (newly married) wife?

texts: At what point is a man allowed to touch a woman that he has just married. Can they touch after he has placed the ring on her finger and said "harei at..." before the 7 blessings are completed? Are they allowed to hold hands on the way to the yichud room? Can they touch after having yichud even if the marriage has not yet been consummated?


texts:
Continuing the series:
The Megillah writes:

יד  וְהַקָּרֹב אֵלָיו, כַּרְשְׁנָא שֵׁתָר אַדְמָתָא תַרְשִׁישׁ, מֶרֶס
מַרְסְנָא, מְמוּכָן--שִׁבְעַת שָׂרֵי פָּרַס וּמָדַי, רֹאֵי פְּנֵי
הַמֶּלֶךְ, הַיֹּשְׁבִים רִאשֹׁנָה, בַּמַּלְכוּת.
14 and the next unto him was Carshena, Shethar, Admatha, Tarshish,
Meres, Marsena, and Memucan, the seven princes of Persia and Media,
who saw the king's face, and sat the first in the kingdom:

In the Torah it tells us:

כ  וַיֹּאמֶר, לֹא תוּכַל לִרְאֹת אֶת-פָּנָי:  כִּי לֹא-יִרְאַנִי
הָאָדָם, וָחָי
20 And He said: 'Thou canst not see My face, for man shall not see
Me and live.'

Since we are told that every instance of the Word "King" in the megillah* is refering to Gd, how were Carshena, shethar, Admatha, Tarshish, Meres, Marsena and Memucan(aka Haman), able to see G'd face and live?  And what "face of Gd", did they see?
And, what did Vashti do against Hashem? Such that Memucan (which the Meforshim say was Haman) could say:

טז  וַיֹּאמֶר מומכן (מְמוּכָן), לִפְנֵי הַמֶּלֶךְ וְהַשָּׂרִים, לֹא
עַל-הַמֶּלֶךְ לְבַדּוֹ, עָוְתָה וַשְׁתִּי הַמַּלְכָּה:  כִּי
עַל-כָּל-הַשָּׂרִים, וְעַל-כָּל-הָעַמִּים, אֲשֶׁר, בְּכָל-מְדִינוֹת
הַמֶּלֶךְ אֲחַשְׁוֵרוֹשׁ.
16
And Memucan answered before the king and the princes: 'Vashti the
queen hath not done wrong to the king only, but also to all the
princes, and to all the peoples, that are in all the provinces of the
king Ahasuerus.

Thank you @Jake for finding the reference:  (my translation)

Gra on Esther (derech remez): ואמרו חכמינו ז"ל במדרש כל מקום שנאמר
המלך סתם הוא הקדוש ברוך הוא וכל מקום שנאמר אחשורוש באחשורוש ממש מדבר.
And our sages of blessed memory say, in midrash, all the places that it says "King"
alone, this refers to Gd, and all the plaes that it says "Acheshverosh", it is speaking
of Acheshverosh only.

Now, I will admit, that when I first heard the idea that every place it says Melech alone it means Gd, that I went and tried to see if it was true. It seemed to me the idea is false, but, if it isn't, I want to understand what these verses are telling us.


texts: Where are the borders of Eretz Israel nowadays?

texts:
Possible Duplicate:
  What are the Halachic boundaries of Eretz Yisroel?

How far into Jordan/Lebanon/Syria/Egypt is still considered "Halachic" Eretz Israel?


texts:
Who knows one hundred forty-one?
Please cite/link your sources, if possible. At some point at least twenty-four hours from now, I will:

Upvote all interesting answers.

Accept the best answer.

Go on to the next number.


texts: Timing of Maariv / Havdalah at the end of Shabbos

texts: Is it required that all elements of Maariv / Havdalah at the conclusion of Shabbos come after dusk, or may some part come between sunset and dusk?


texts: I remember hearing of a source that states that Yosef was sold into prostitution, or some other form of sexual slavery, by his brothers, and not just plain slavery as is commonly assumed. Does such a source exist?


texts: A person with an untied shoelace trips who is responsible

texts:
Someone asked me (as a Rabbi) this "rhetorical" question:

Is someone with an untied shoelace walks in a place where many people walk and someone steps on his shoelace, and he (the person with the untied shoelace) trips and hurts himself, is the person who stepped on his shoelace responsible?
(There might be a difference if the person stepped on his shoelace while he was standing vs. walking)

I am looking for Halochic sources regarding this to show him (to use this opportunity to learn some Torah), please

ideas that come to me,
on one hand the halacha "about someone with a lot of flax passing a home with a candle burning"
on the other hand the halacha (BK 32a SA CM 378.8) that "before Shabbos there is a hazaka that people rush and if there is damages because of that the one who did not realize the person running is responsible"


texts: Were suppliers of flour to the Temple able to make a profit or did they do it just for the kudos?

texts:
The business arrangments for suppliers to the Temple are mentioned in the mishnah in Shekalim 4 (9)

  Once in thirty days, they would set the price paid by the treasury
  chamber. If one undertook to supply fine flour at four [se'ah per
  sela], and subsequently, the price rose to three [se'ah per
  sela], he must supply four [se'ah of flour]. But, if he undertook to
  supply three, and the price dropped to four, he supplies four, because
  the Temple has the upper hand. If the fine flour became infested with
  worms, the loss is his, and if the wine became sour, the loss is his.
  He does not receive his money until the altar atones.

“They” in the first sentence seems to refer to the Temple officers (see Yachin “אפ"ה כל ל' יום קבעו הגבאים שער למנחות ". So the price was set by the Temple and the supplier could only lose whichever way the market price went and had to take the risk of the produce deteriorating before use.

How did this work practically? Did the Temple officers set a price that gave a fair chance of suppliers making a profit or were suppliers happy to supply even at a loss for the honour of being suppliers to the Temple?


texts:
Background:

We are all human and sometimes tend towards the evil inclination. At times we successfully fight against the inappropriate feelings, thoughts, actions, etc. At other times we don't do so well. For example, I, a Jewish man, am extremely attracted to a married Jewish women whom I work with (but not in the same office.)

The reasons for my attraction are numerous and believe it or not, it isn't only about sex appeal. I do not deny that I find her REALLY good looking, but there is a holistic element to my attraction. We communicate so well, we share many common interests, we share personal information (NOT of a sexual nature), she is intelligent and well educated, she loves children, she is a kind-hearted person who expresses empathy towards others, we understand each other's off-center sense of humor. I can go on and on.  She is, however, married to a non-Jewish man by whom she has a young daughter, but she still has some connection with Judaism. Obviously (?) she is not my bersheit but in many ways I feel as if she is.

Now I assure you that I would NEVER act on my yatzer harah, but the desire is so strong at times that it causes me distress and guilt. If she were to get divorced, I'd be hitting on her in an instant. If she felt the same towards me, well Mazel Tov to both of us. That would solve part of the problem although that would not absolve me of my current sinful urges.

My question:

So I am wondering, are there any Jewish sources that offer specific actions or prayers to repent for having inappropriate desire for a married woman? In addition, are there any Jewish sources that recommend ways to avoid/suppress the feelings?

Keep in mind I am not concerned with generalized attraction towards women I come in contact with on a daily basis. That's a different story altogether (addressed in this question and this question). My concern is about having strong feelings for one particular woman.


texts: Hatarat nedarim for a not-forgotten neder

texts:
About the התרת נדרים that some do every erev rosh hashana, I vaguely recall reading that, there could be some limitations? If the guy has not forgotten his neder and he still recalls it when he stands in front of the three etc.

Has anyone source or pointers about this? Thank you.

NB: the subject here is about a neder that could be permitted (for example, a real petach/charata exists). Just, the guy has no time to explicit/explain all his nedarim etc.


texts: What is the Halacha regarding hiring yourself as Santa Claus to make money?

texts: Is there a prohibition of dressing up as Santa Claus to make money Halachically speaking?


texts:
Were there Jewish religious movements/sects in the history that used to put or hanged their Tefillin on their chest/neck? (rather than on the arm against the heart).
As far as I remember, I read in past, that there some sects to interpret "וְהָיוּ הַדְּבָרִים הָאֵלֶּה אֲשֶׁר אָנֹכִי מְצַוְּךָ הַיּוֹם עַל לְבָבֶךָ" to have Tefillin right on the chest in front of the heart. Probably some of them also based their idea on "קָשְׁרֵם עַל-גַּרְגְּרוֹתֶיךָ, כָּתְבֵם עַל-לוּחַ לִבֶּךָ".
Now I'm looking for information about it, and I found nothing.


texts:
The concern of basar shenitaleim is that, somehow, kosher meat, unguarded and not recognizable, could be replaced with non-kosher meat. However, chicken, fish, milk and cheeses, and even vegetables all have analogues which look like the kosher version but are not necessarily kosher.

Does this only apply to (red) meat and if so, why?


texts:
Are there any shuls (I'm preferably looking for shuls in Yerushalayim) that say the Hungarian(/Bohemian/Moravian/Silesian) selichos for the Yemei HaSelichos?

(This is the selichos that is found in the Rosenfeld Slichos, the Machzor Polin, and this).


texts:
Okay, so this is how it seems like the correct translation of this pasuk is:

that Reuven went and lay with Bilhah, his father’s concubine…” (Bereshit 35:21-22) That would be an unbelievable act if it were literally true. Therefore, Rashi, based on the Gemara in Shabbat 55b, explains what happened as follows: “…When Rachel died, Yaakov moved his bed, that had been placed in the tent of Rachel, into the tent of her handmaiden, Bilhah. Reuven came and contested this shaming of his mother. He said, ‘If my mother’s sister was her rival, that’s one thing, but that her handmaiden should be a rival as well, that is intolerable!’ Therefore, he moved his father’s bed to his mother’s tent.” (Rashi 35:22, text beginning “He mixed up”) Because Reuven entered into matters that were none of his business, the Torah used such strong language to describe his act.

Does anyone (any perush...) interpret it literally, that Reuben slept with Bilhah?


texts:
I'm a gentile and have studied Nedarim 61 a little bit recently. From what I've gathered so far, when someone makes a neder for "this year" or "a year", it means for the rest of the year, whether that year ends up being a leap year or not. But if he makes it for "one year" it means 12 months from the day he made that neder.

If I'm correct on this, what would be the time period if he made the neder for "two years" or "10 years"? How would the time period be determined?


texts: How many people participated in the golden calf?

texts: When Moshe comes down from Har Sinai & sees the golden calf he says ‘Whoever is for God, join me.’ After the Leviim gather he orders them to grab their swords & execute anyone involved. They do so & the Torah tells us that ‘approximately 3,000 men died that day’ (Exodus 32:26-28). We know that there were around 600,000 men at Har Sinai so the question is did only 3000 ppl participate in this affair (just half a percent of the population) or were the 3000 the instigators/leaders & many more followed them?


texts: When asking for personal requests in Shemoneh Esrei, how should one phrase them?

texts:
The Shulchan Aruch (OC 119:1) rules that one may add to a middle Brachah (i.e. from Atah Chonein to Shema Koleinu, inclusive) of Shemoneh Esrei a personal request on the topic; for instance, if one wishes to daven for a sick person, he may include it at the end of Refa’einu. In Shema Koleinu, one may add any requests he has. The Rema holds that one may only add to the end of a Bracha. The Shulchan Aruch quotes Rabbeinu Yonah that one who davens for many people should phrase his request in the plural, and one who davens for an individual should phrase his request in the singular, though if one adds to Shema Koleinu or the end of Shemoneh Esrei, he can phrase it however he wishes.

Other than those brief statements there (which is all the Shulchan Aruch quotes on the topic), how should one phrase it? If one is davening in Hebrew, should he add his requests in Hebrew as well? If one is davening for himself, should he just refer to himself in the first person, or should he use his full name (ben/bas mother’s name)? Does it even matter?


texts:
There are certain dates throughout the year when one may not give a "Hesped" (eulogy) because of a certain level of happiness associated with those dates.

However, I've attended funerals conducted on some of those dates; the bottom line is that, if someone passes away, the body needs to be buried, and the custom, unless it is a day when Melachah (labor) is prohibited, is to have a funeral at which people deliver speeches about the deceased and offer comfort to the family.  I've heard such speeches open with, "We are forbidden from eulogizing today, however I just want to say a few words about..."

So what exactly is not allowed, and how are these speeches not "Hespedim"?


texts: Laws regarding putting someone to death for violating the sabbath

texts: Two witnesses go to the beit din and claim that so and so violated the sabbath on a biblical level. The witnesses claim they warned him in accordance with the rules and they did their part as witnesses. When so and so is brought to beis din, he claims he did a melacha (such as digging a hole), but he claims it was for the dirt. Which would only be a rabbinical prohibition because it's a מלאכה שאין צריכה לגופה. If a person were to use this as their defense to deflect the death penalty would it theoretically work?


texts:
Where can I buy a copy of the sefer Shailos and Tshuvos Ohr Yitzchak of Rabbi Yitzchak Abadi?

No seforim stores carry it anymore ,out of stock.


texts: Simchas Yom Tov for one's wife: what if she otherwise gets clothes etc.?

texts: A husband is supposed to ensure his wife's Simchas Yom Tov by buying her something (new jewelry, clothes, etc.) for the holiday. If she has already received such an item from a different source, and will thus already have this kind of simcha, does the husband still have an obligation to buy her something?


texts: Can the chazzan use the vernacular quietly?

texts: When saying a private portion of the service, such as pesukei de-zimra, may the shaliach tzibur (aka chazzan, or the person leading services) use English, and switch to Hebrew for the portions said aloud?


texts: It is well known that whenever it says HaMelech without the name Achashveirosh in Megillas Esther, it is referring to Hashem. What then is the meaning of Perek 4 Posuk 3, where, in reference to the letters Achashveirosh sent out, they were according to HaMelech and His law?


texts: Is there a chart which details the major common pronunciations of Hebrew?

texts:
I learned how to pronounce Hebrew from the book "Teach Yourself to Read Hebrew" which describes pronunciation with Sephardic vocalization. For example, patach and kamatz, according to the book, are pronounced more or less the same, and there's no difference between a tav with a dagesh and a tav without a dagesh.

After becoming very fast in reading the Sephardic pronunciation, I decided to start learning the Ashkenazic pronunciation, so I began working on pronouncing a tav without a dagesh as a sav. It then dawned on me that there seem to be a few other differences between the pronunciations that I wasn't aware of and am still unclear on.

Is there a chart or program available which details the major different pronunciations and their differences? I'm primarily interested in the Sephardic, Ashkenazic, Chassidic, Hungarian, and Yemenite pronunciations. Is there a resource available which can help me do this?

It's kind of a bummer to be learning about these differences this late in the game, but better late than never :)


texts: Why do Yeshivos learn Talmud Bavli so extensively?

texts:
Most Yeshivos (from 5th Grade-End of High school) Learn Talmud Bavli.

My question is: Why? What is the point of learning Talmud Bavli so extensively?

I know that it is Hashem's Word, but there are a lot of other things to learn which are more useful (ex. Shulchan Aruch Harav where he gives the reasons (mostly from the talmud) and gives the halacha) and are Hashem's words?

So why specifically learn Talmud Bavli? And why spend so much time on it?

Indeed, there is a reason that we would not learn Talmud Bavli; that we know that the whole point of learning is actual performance of mitzvot, so Talmud seems ineffective  vis-à-vis e.g. Shulchan Aruch Harav


texts:
Rav Hirsh often relates similar sounding word-roots. For example, in the beginning of Bereshit he compares the root ברא to ברח to show that they have the common meaning of "wanting to come out or be free".
Is this type of comparison his "chiddush"? I have not come across this type of comparison in other commentaries.

  "ברא" קרוב אל "ברח" "ברה", "פרח", "פרא", "פרע"


texts: What is the morning blessing Roka Haaretz - רוֹקַע הָאָרֶץ עַל הַמָּיִם - all about?

texts:
One of the daily morning blessings is רוֹקַע הָאָרֶץ עַל הַמָּיִם - He solidifies the ground above the water.

We're thanking Hashem for the solid ground; the inhabited world isn't all marshy or liquid which would make life really difficult.

My question is: If Hashem had made the ground under our feet less than solid, He would have made our bodies appropriate for the marsh/liquid. Same as ducks and penguins survive just fine as created.

So why are we thanking Hashem for Solid Ground?


texts: It is said in the shulchan Aruch that one should buy Shabbat Candles instead of Wine if one didn't have enough money for both of them. However,  When we see into the talmud it says in Shabbat 23b that a person must choose Candles because there cannot be shalom without light. But then again, we have electric lights nowadays which can also replace candles in times of need. And if someone was to talk about the spiritual lights from the candle as the Zohar talks about them, i have read that Rabbi Ovadia Yosef says that someone should not posek with regards to Kabbalistic concepts.  So then,  Should one theoretically choose wine or candles?


texts: Can vows made by women nowadays still be annulled by father or husband (until sunset of the same day), as described in this week's parshah (mattos), or is this a practice of biblical/talmudic times only?


texts: Nowadays, whom is Birkat Haminim directed at?

texts: Today I saw this question: History of Birkas haMinim, which got me thinking: Nowadays, that we don't have Tzdokim or little Judaic Temple-cults like the Essenes, whom is the Birkat Haminim directed at? Just Christians? Or other religions? If the latter, then: all other religions or just some of them? And might it also be directed at some Jews (Chalilah?) as it was in the beginning? What about Kara'im and Shomronim?


texts:
Who knows three hundred fourteen?
?ארבעה עשר ושלוש מאות - מי יודע
In the spirit of the song "Echad - mi yodeya", please post interesting and significant Jewish facts about the number 314.
Lazy gematria has to be stopped, lest it grow indefinitely.
Check out mi-yodeya-series for the previous three hundred thirteen entries in this ongoing series.
Please include sources for your information wherever possible, as with all other answers on this site.


texts:
Halacha dictates that a man must hand the Get out of free will to his wife for a divorce to take effect.

If the man is mentally unstable, in a full time coma, a sadistic individual or his whereabouts are unknown the wife is essentially chained.

Is there anyway to circumvent this problem?

Recently read a case of Tzefat Bet Din granting a Get on behalf of a terminally comatose husband. I know the ruling is under scrutiny now by the Rabbinate. I don't know the details but it's a pretty well known case.

Source - http://blogs.timesofisrael.com/replacing-the-torah-with-chaos-the-chief-rabbi-seeks-to-undo-a-divorce/


texts: משנכנס אדר מרבין בשמחה - from first day of Rosh Chodesh?

texts: Does the increase of joy in Adar begin on the first day of Rosh Chodesh, since it is "Rosh Chodesh Adar" (even if it is not yet Adar)?


texts:
אַשְׁרֵי in Psalms 1:1 is pronounced with 3 syllables in Mechon-Mamre's mp3 file t2601.  It is pronounced with 2 syllables in the last verse of Psalms 2 in Mechon-Mamre's mp3 file t2602.

My question is why the pronunciation difference and if there is a difference in the meaning of the word due to the difference.


texts: Yichud at night, if both of the woman's parents are home

texts: Is it permissible for a man to be at a woman's home at night if both of her parents are at home, but sleeping? What if they are awake?


texts:
Onaat devarim is a biblical prohibition to commit verbal abuse (Bava Metzia 58b based on Vayikra 25:17 "וְלֹא תוֹנוּ אִישׁ אֶת עֲמִיתוֹ וְיָרֵאתָ מֵאֱלֹקיךָ כִּי אֲנִי ה' אֱלֹקיכֶם", "one shall not aggrieve his fellow, and you shall fear your G-d, for I am Hashem your G-d."; Shulchan Aruch Choshen Mishpat 228:1; Sefer Hamitzvot 251; Sefer Hachinuch 338). The Gemara and Shulchan Aruch say it is worse than onaat mamon (overcharging) because it can't be undone and it injures the person himself, not just his money. Rambam (Hilchot Deot 6:3; Hilchot Teshuva 3:14) writes that one who regularly shames others has no portion in the World to Come. Chazon Ish Letters volume 1 #211 says onaat devarim applies even if the discomfort is only momentary (see http://halachipedia.com/index.php?title=Hurting_Others%27_Feelings ).

A counterpoint to this ideal of "Torat Chessed" (Torah of Compassion) is that of the extremely high regard halacha places on the pursuit of truth and intellectual honesty ("Torat Emet"). The Maharshal infers from a passage in Bava Kamma that the principle of presenting halacha accurately is yehareg v'al ya'avor (worthy of martyrdom) even to the extent of endangering the Jewish nation as a whole. In fact, the Talmud is replete with examples where harsh (and seemingly personal) rhetoric is used in disputes of halacha, and the biting tongues of Torah scholars are famously compared to those of venomous serpents. (See also the famous dispute between Beis Hillel and Beis Shammai [כתובות ט"ז ב] regarding how one handles the balance between honesty and avoiding offense.)

Unfortunately, the internet/blogosphere has become a notorious forum for cyberbullying and anonymous harassment, even within the otherwise halachically-observant world and even in forums devoted to analysis of halacha and hashkafa, such as this one. This can sometimes be the case unintentionally where the "victimizer" is not even aware that he is inflicting suffering on his fellow.

It is a frequent occurrence, on this forum as well as others, that a clearly less experienced poster submits an entry that is not particularly knowledgeable. My question is this:

If one doesn't know very much about a poster (e.g. their education level, if they are emotionally vulnerable, if they are a child), is it permitted halachically to e.g. "downvote" a question or answer they have posted, whether on this forum or any other?

[It was suggested that this question is a duplicate of another that discusses the ramifications of "down-voting" with regard to the prohibition of lashon hara. However, these are 2 completely different prohibitions with different laws. Furthermore, while the accepted answer there does cite a view that is possibly relevant to the question of down-voting between peers, it tells us little regarding where a down-vote might be (mis)interpreted as hurtful by a child or new user.]


texts: Why does Naomi talk in masculine form to her daughters-in-law?

texts:
In Rus 1:8, Naomi is telling her two daughters-in-law that they should return to their homes.

וַתֹּ֤אמֶר נָעֳמִי֙ לִשְׁתֵּ֣י כַלֹּתֶ֔יהָ לֵ֣כְנָה שֹּׁ֔בְנָה אִשָּׁ֖ה לְבֵ֣ית אִמָּ֑הּ יעשה [יַ֣עַשׂ] יְהוָ֤ה עִמָּכֶם֙ חֶ֔סֶד כַּאֲשֶׁ֧ר עֲשִׂיתֶ֛ם עִם־הַמֵּתִ֖ים וְעִמָּדִֽי׃
But Naomi said to her two daughters-in-law, “Turn back, each of you to her mother’s house. May the LORD deal kindly with you, as you have dealt with the dead and with me!

How come she uses the masculine form of the bolded words instead of the feminine form (עִמָּכֶן and עֲשִׂיתֶ֛ן) when she is speaking to females?


texts: Are there any ill-effects for mis-directed prayers?

texts:
Inspired by the end of this answer:

  Just remember that all non-Jews don't follow the Sheva Mitzvot and could [even] be in Avodah Zarah and then would...a blessing [of theirs] matter? It might even be harmful (emphasis mine)?

Is the latter notion above correct? If someone prays for another's well-being, and the prayers are not (entirely) directed towards HaShem, could that harm the person whose well-being is being prayed for?


texts: Does the Rambam Contradict Yirmiyahu 18 on Prophecy?

texts:
The Rambam famously states regarding the nature of positive prophecies (Hilchot Yesodei HaTorah 10:4):

דברי הפורענות שהנביא אומר כגון שיאמר פלוני ימות או שנה פלונית רעב או מלחמה וכיוצא בדברים אלו אם לא עמדו דבריו אין בזה הכחשה לנבואתו ואין אומרים הנה דבר ולא בא... אבל אם הבטיח על טובה ואמר שיהיה כך וכך ולא באה הטובה שאמר בידוע שהוא נביא שקר שכל דבר טובה שיגזור האל אפילו על תנאי אינו חוזר ולא מצינו שחזר בדבר טובה אלא בחרבן ראשון כשהבטיח לצדיקים שלא ימותו עם הרשעים וחזר בדבריו וזה מפורש במסכת שבת.
[Regarding] prophecies of retribution which a prophet will utter - e.g., "So and so will die," "This or that year will be a year of famine or a year of war," and the like. If his words do not come true, this does not nullify the validity of his prophecy, nor do we say [in condemnation of him]: "Behold, he spoke and his words were not fulfilled."...
... But if [a prophet] promised that good would come and such and such will occur, and the good about which he prophesied did not materialize, he is surely a false prophet. Any good which God decrees - even if [the decree] is provisional - will never be nullified. We only find [God] nullifying a positive prophecy during the destruction of the first Temple. He had promised the righteous that they would not die together with the wicked; however, He nullified this prophecy, as explained in the tractate of Shabbat. (Translation from Chabad with minor edits).

This view has become mainstream; for example, here is an excerpt from Chabad.org's What is Prophecy?:

[O]nce a Divine promise of good is communicated through a prophet it is never retracted; however, if the prophet warns, in the name of G‑d, that a calamity is destined to befall, and it does not occur, this does not disprove his prophecy, since a decree of evil can be removed through prayer and repentance.

However, Yirmiyahu 18:5-10 states:

ה וַיְהִי דְבַר-יְהוָה, אֵלַי לֵאמוֹר.  ו הֲכַיּוֹצֵר הַזֶּה לֹא-אוּכַל לַעֲשׂוֹת לָכֶם, בֵּית יִשְׂרָאֵל--נְאֻם-יְהוָה; הִנֵּה כַחֹמֶר בְּיַד הַיּוֹצֵר, כֵּן-אַתֶּם בְּיָדִי בֵּית יִשְׂרָאֵל.  {ס}  ז רֶגַע אֲדַבֵּר, עַל-גּוֹי וְעַל-מַמְלָכָה, לִנְתוֹשׁ וְלִנְתוֹץ, וּלְהַאֲבִיד.  ח וְשָׁב, הַגּוֹי הַהוּא, מֵרָעָתוֹ, אֲשֶׁר דִּבַּרְתִּי עָלָיו--וְנִחַמְתִּי, עַל-הָרָעָה, אֲשֶׁר חָשַׁבְתִּי, לַעֲשׂוֹת לוֹ.  {ס}  ט וְרֶגַע אֲדַבֵּר, עַל-גּוֹי וְעַל-מַמְלָכָה, לִבְנוֹת, וְלִנְטוֹעַ.  י וְעָשָׂה הרעה (הָרַע) בְּעֵינַי, לְבִלְתִּי שְׁמֹעַ בְּקוֹלִי--וְנִחַמְתִּי, עַל-הַטּוֹבָה, אֲשֶׁר אָמַרְתִּי, לְהֵיטִיב אוֹתוֹ.
5 Then the word of the LORD came to me, saying: 6 'O house of Israel, cannot I do with you as this potter? saith the LORD. Behold, as the clay in the potter's hand, so are ye in My hand, O house of Israel. {S} 7 At one instant I may speak concerning a nation, and concerning a kingdom, to pluck up and to break down and to destroy it; 8 but if that nation turn from their evil, because of which I have spoken against it, I repent of the evil that I thought to do unto it. {S} 9 And at one instant I may speak concerning a nation, and concerning a kingdom, to build and to plant it; 10 but if it do evil in My sight, that it hearken not to My voice, then I repent of the good, wherewith I said I would benefit it.

The Rambam surely knew Yirmiyahu, and therefore how could he hold his opinion that prophecies of good could not be revoked? Is this truly a contradiction, as it clearly seems to be? And, practically, should we stop teaching this Rambam in our Chinuch institutions?


texts: How should multiple cholim be included in the refuah bracha in the silent amidah?

texts:
When praying for multiple cholim, how should they be included in the bracha of refaeinu? What words should be used in between their names?

For example, when adding another name do we insert ולחולה (with the appropriate final vowel for the gender of the sick person)?

Here's an example from the Koren siddur:


texts:
Did God acquire or improve His good "qualities" (ex. wisdom, kindness, righteousness) or were they always a part of Him?

(we can see for example, that God possesses the characteristics of wisdom and also power, as evidenced by His works such as the electron, the cell, the human brain, the laws of physics, etc.)

if the latter, would it be some kind of extra aspect in man that he is able to acquire these things on his own? (since earning righteousness of your own free will is in a sense superior than having it innately)

(or perhaps we should not be talking about these things for they are beyond our grasp)


texts: In the sefer Noam Elimelech, many of his Torah pieces have shorter pieces within them that have a few asterisks before and after the piece. What is the significance of these markings?


texts: Is the obligation for Gentiles to establish a system of courts communal or individual?

texts:
One of the seven laws of Noah for gentiles is to set up a system of courts.
Is the obligation to set up a system of courts a communal obligation on Gentile communities, or does every single Gentile have an individual obligation to make a specific minimum level of effort or contribution toward the establishment of Noachide courts? If it is individual, what level of effort or contribution is required from each Gentile?
For example, if a Gentile determines that setting up Noachide courts is politically very unlikely and that most Gentiles in his community actively oppose such courts, can he say "Well, I tried!" and move on with his life, or is he required to spend all that he has toward political lobbying, even if he ends up a bankrupt social outcast? If a Gentile finds that he is the only Gentile in his community interested in a Noachide court, is he required to just up and appoint himself as a judge and start issuing rulings (even though those rulings could never actually be enforced)?
In response to @heshy 's question about whether the courts themselves must be Noachide, that can be part of an answer to the question. One could argue that modern-day secular courts fulfill most of what would be expected from a biblical Noachide court, but do the gaps in practice invalidate them as fulfilling the obligation? For example, the regular civil and criminal courts in the area in which I live will not take action against a person for worshiping an idol (under the principle of Freedom of Religion) or for cursing God (Free Speech). The law against adultery is no longer enforced (they will laugh at you if you try to file a case). The courts do take action against murderers and thieves, though there are probably minor differences in how edge cases are handled versus how halacha says they should be. Do Noachides have an obligation to lobby their local legislature to make idolatry and blasphemy illegal? Is there an "eh, good enough" principle?


texts: Is there a pattern to Yonasan Ben Uziel's introduction to mitzvos?

texts:
Starting with the dibros, YbU introduces some mitzvos with the words 'Ami bnei Yisrael" and I don't see the pattern as to when he does and when he doesn't. Anyone have an idea which ones deserve this intro?

Additionally, on at least one occasion it is "Ami beis Yisrael" (Vayikra 25:36 - immediately followed with an "ami bnei Yisrael" intro in the next verse).


texts: Why did one brother find the money en route, and not the others?

texts:
Miketz 42:26–35, in Rabbi Aryeh Kaplan's translation:

  [The brothers] then loaded the food they bought on their donkeys, and they departed. When they came to the place where they spent the night, one of them opened his sack to feed his donkey. He saw his money right there at the top of his pack. 'My money has been returned!' he exclaimed to his brothers. 'It's in my pack!' Their hearts sank. 'What is this that God has done to us?' they asked each other with trembling voices. When they came to their father Jacob in the land of Canaan, they told him about all that had happened to them.… They began emptying their sacks, and each one's money was [found to be] in his sack. [The brothers] and their father saw the money-bags and they were afraid.

Why is it that one of the brothers opened his bag en route and the others did not? Didn't they all have to feed their donkeys? Or if they all opened their bags, why did only one of them find the money? Was his money stored higher in the bag, or something? Why?


texts: What's with this "approved for Pesach" tape?

texts: That's masking tape from the hardware store, with an "approved for Pesach" label by the Badatz. What??


texts: What is the etymology of the name Aharon? The only serious site I've found that proposes an etymology is this, but I'm hoping for a more classical source, i.e. Chazal or Rishonim.


texts:
Diabetes is a חולי שיש בו סכנה, an illness that poses a danger to life1. As such, everything necessary for caring for diabetes must be done on Shabbos, even if it includes איסורי תורה. (see Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chaim 328, Rambam, Hilchot Shabbos 2, שמירת שבת כהלכתה, ch. 32)

However, if it makes no difference to the speed/efficacy in which care is provided, one should minimize the amount of חילול שבת, both in the amount of actions done, as well as in the severity of the prohibitions violated (Biblical vs. rabbinic). [Shmiras Shabbos K'Hilchasa, 32:27-29]
Therefore, blood sugar testing, which is a medical necessity for PWD (especially those with insulin-dependent DM), must be done on Shabbos, but the prohibitions violated should be limited.

How should one check blood sugar on Shabbos, while minimizing Shabbos violations?

1Whether due to hypo or hyperglycemia, both which can are preventable -- given that they are discovered before they happen, like by blood sugar check.


texts: Making the blessing on wine for two people on shabbat morning, but only one needs kiddush

texts:
In general, I cannot say borei pri hagafen on behalf of another, if I'm not also drinking wine and making the blessing for myself as well. (Shulchan Aruch Orach Chaim 213:2)

One exception to this rule is the shabbat morning kiddush (Rema to Shulchan Aruch Orach Chaim 273:4). There I can say borei pri hagafen to allow someone to fulfill his obligation of kiddush, even if I am not drinking anything.

What happens if there are two other people present on shabbat morning who both wish to drink wine, but one has already fulfilled kiddush?

I don't want to drink wine, but I can say borei pri hagafen on behalf of the person who has not yet fulfilled kiddush. Can the second person, who has already fulfilled kiddush, use my blessing for the wine he wishes to drink now?


texts: No Cohen - use a Levi or Yisra'el Gadol?

texts:
Mishna Berura note 9 on O.C. 135:3 says that if there is no Cohen in the shul during public Torah reading, we call up the wisest person in the shul.

In many shuls that I have attended, they call up a Levi in place of a Cohen. While, of course, I can't evaluate everybody's wisdom level, I attended my son's yeshiva, and the rosh yeshiva, who is a Yisra'el, I would presume is a gadol bechachma compared to the 13 year old boy who was a Levi who was called up.

I've seen in many other shuls that a common custom is to call a Levi rather than follow this precedent. I can't imagine that so many shuls are making a mistake. Why is this allowed, then? Is there a preference to call a Levi over a Gadol?


texts:
The Talmud (Niddah 30b) teaches us that when a child is in the womb, an angel comes and teaches it the entire Torah, which he subsequently forgets.

The simple reading of the Gemara gives no reason to draw a distinction between male and female.  However, I am wondering if there are any sources which do make such a distinction.  The reason I would think there could be a distinction is because it is possible the angel teaching them the Torah is connected to their mitzvah of learning Torah, and women do not have the same mitzvah as men (Kiddushin 29b), and the Mishna in Sotah (3:4) says that teaching a woman Torah is not such a good thing.

I am looking for sources that make this distinction, or explicitly reject such a distinction.  I am not looking for indirect lines of reasoning which would indicate one way or the other.  You can ask your own question if you want to find that.


texts:
The Bavli, Shabas 31 amud 1, has two stories in which a gentile came to Shamay asking to be converted to Judaism, upon which Shamay "pushed him with the construction cubit in his hand". Rashi explains that a construction cubit was a cubit-long stick used in construction for measurement.

Why did Shamay have one in his hand?


texts: Why is the foreskin removed? God gave it men, did God also tell them to have it removed?


texts: What happens if I wrap my tefillin before the earliest time to wrap tefillin?

texts: The earliest time to wrap tefillin in my town is 6:14 (for the next little while), on Monday and Thursday we start at 6:15. Is it OK if I finish wrapping my tefillin before 6:14? Do I still get the mitzvah? Is there anyway I can get around this?


texts: When doing something we regret later, can one attribute their misstep to Hashem?

texts: Suppose you do something “stupid” that you later regret. It makes you very discontent you could have made such a foolish error, as at the time you just weren’t thinking clearly and you should have and could have chosen differently. Was it Hashem that limited you in the moment?


texts: What might G-d's self identification as "the ruler of armies" be intended to express?

texts:
In divine dealings with Israel and the nations, we don't really see divine armies employed much. More often foreign armies are employed in order to punish Israel and bring her into exile.
We do see angelic armies, though, as well, at least as a vision.
Is this designation intended as "divine warrior" imagery, speaking metaphorically of G-d's greatness, metaphor of his supreme control of nations or a literal military maintained in heaven which is intended to say that "the cops are watching"?
Put another way, given divine omnipotence, how metaphorically should we understand "angel armies", both in our conception of the divine realm and in regard to divine interventions in the affairs of men?
To clarify even further, is "ruler of armies" simply anthropomorphism?
For example:

1 Samuel 1:
3And that man was wont to go up from his city from appointed time to appointed time, to prostrate himself and to slaughter (peace offerings) to the Lord of Hosts in Shiloh, and there the two sons of Eli, Hophni and Phinhas, were serving the Lord.

גוְעָלָה֩ הָאִ֨ישׁ הַה֚וּא מֵֽעִירוֹ֙ מִיָּמִ֣ים | יָמִ֔ימָה לְהִֽשְׁתַּחֲוֹ֧ת וְלִזְבֹּ֛חַ לַיהֹוָ֥ה צְבָא֖וֹת בְּשִׁלֹ֑ה וְשָׁ֞ם שְׁנֵ֣י בְנֵֽי־עֵלִ֗י חָפְנִי֙ וּפִ֣נְחָ֔ס כֹּהֲנִ֖ים לַיהֹוָֽה:


texts: (How) Did Channukah events and the Makkabim change Judaism?

texts:
Besides the obvious celebration of Channukah,
How's Judaism is different now because of those events:

Did the Makkabim and the Chanukkah event leave any trace in the Jewish Halachic tradition?
Were the Makkabim of a special school or approach within Judaism and changed Judaism in favor of their views?
Did they change or institute anything about the way the Jews studied Torah and kept Mitzvos?
Did they rule some wide-scale Takkonos?
What can we say today, like "Thank Makkabim we now ...?" Or the opposite: "if not the Makkabim we would..."?


texts: why do we skip mizmor l'toda on pesach but still bring the sacrifice with our lips in eyzeh mekoman?

texts:
I am told we don't say mizmor l'toda (psalm 100) on pesach as the loaves of the sacrifice are chametz. However I believe we still say the laws of the toda in 'eyzeh mekoman' in the section of the prayer known as korbanos (sacrifices).

this is troubling because the psalm is merely an allusion to offering the sacrifice, whereas the laws of a sacrifice are supposed to be considered as if we offered the sacrifice itself when we don't have a temple and cannot offer them physically.

so, how can we offer the toda sacrifice on pesach when it contains leaven loaves?


texts: What does 1/2 tefachs in the front 2/1 tefachs in the back mean

texts:
Similar Halachos of the bathroom

In the 3rd siman of the Shulchan Aruch is understood (by me) you should keep your body covered as much as possible, for example when a man goes to the bathroom (for number 2)  he should uncover (acording to one version of the Braisa) 2 tefochim in the front (so that he will not spray it with his urine) or 1 tefach (the minimum needed)
And from behind (acording to the first version) 1 tefach (the minimum needed) or (acording to the second version) 2 tefochim (becouse it is harder to keep his cloths clean in the back when he does not see)

By a woman it is always 1 tafach in the back

I can not imagine what do these tefochim mean, please explain it to me, (where the legs completely open?...).

i guess it has something to do with the clothing then and the sitting position but i still can not understand it

What does it mean physicaly, to reveal a tefach, 2 tefachs, in font, from behind?


texts: Praying with pictures or money on the table

texts:
It has been established that one may not pray facing a picture.

May one pray by a table where pictures or money bills lie?
How about engraved images like coins?
If prohibited, how can the practice of praying in front of tzedaka money be justified?


texts: Is it permissible to give someone money for davening?

texts: Suppose if I had a brother that doesn't daven, and no matter how much you advice he won't daven, but he cares about money so if you give him money he will start davening, and if I kept giving him until he gets used to it and Hashem guides him. Is this permissible?


texts: Can Avodah Zarah acquire a state of Hekdesh?

texts:
What's the Halachic status of Avodah Zarah which someone somehow pronounced Hekdesh (even accidentally, like choosing the wrong jug of oil)? Does the Avodah Zarah accept Hekdesh?

If it can become Hekdesh, can it still be destroyed? Can the value be swapped and exchanged for money, and then be thrown into the Dead Sea? Or is this considered Hana'ah, and one may not benefit monetarily from it?


texts: How do you prepare a ram's head for Rosh Hashana night

texts:
One of the Simanim brought to eat on Rosh Hashana is a Ram's head. It isn't very popular, I assume due to availability, but one year they had them (well, a lamb's head) in the local store, but I was unable to find any way to prepare it in a way that would be edible.

How do you cook a ram's head for eating on Rosh Hashana night?


texts: Israeli attending second seder Motzaei Shabbat - How should he behave during Kiddush?

texts:
If an Israeli attends your 2nd Seder this year, when it's Motzaei Shabbat, how should he behave at your Seder table for the 1st cup of wine?

You will do a combo Kiddush / havdalah. He does no Kiddush but a regular M. Shabbat Havdalah. You and your family are the hosts and he is staying with you. What would be the best protocol?

option 1 - Listen to you make the entire Kiddush and you drink the wine. Then, you listen to him make the havdalah?

option 2 - "Share" the combo. He listens to you make the Kiddush (he will not say the beginning phrases "Hinei El".) He has to make Borei Minei Besamim so you let him. Both of you have to make Borei Me'orei Ha'esh, so he'll listen to you. He will listen to you make the rest of havdalah as the beginning words are identical to the weekday words; the ending is a bit "extra". The final bracha, while you say Ben Kodesh L'kodesh, he says "ben kodesh l'chol"

option 3- He listens to your Kiddush and Havdala and is yotzei through the words you said "Baruch ata Hashem.. Hamavdil Ben Kodesh Lechol..." even though the end of that brocho is "Hamavdil ben Kodesh lekodesh? This would apply to an American who made aliya and can't speak/read Hebrew yet. after Drinking kiddush anyone can make a brocho on Besamim for him.


texts: Is cooking food in one's mouth forbidden on Shabbos?

texts:
If someone put an uncooked food into his mouth on shabbos, and then drinks water which is hot enough to cook the food (עירוי כלי ראשון שיד סולדת בו or if the food was מקלי הבישול even from a כלי שני) is this considered cooking? Is he עובר on בישול בשבת?

If not, why not?


texts: Is there any Jewish translation of the Hebrew Bible that is available in several different languages worldwide?

texts:
From what I understand, the Jewish tradition is very insistent that translations of the Hebrew Bible accurately reflect the original text.

Because of this, several Jewish English Bible translations have been produced - specifically by Jews and for Jews.

I am wondering, however, if there is any particular Jewish English translation of the Hebrew Bible that is also available in several different languages worldwide.

I have 2 reasons for asking this question:

(1) The several Jewish English Bible translations that I have come across (produced specifically by Jews and for Jews) are not available in any language other than English

(2) A while back ago, I asked this question about whether or not there is a Jewish Greek Bible translation (other than the Septuagint, which is not used by Jews outside of Beta Israel, or the 1547 Yevanic Greek Torah in the "Constantinople Pentateuch," which only includes the first 5 books, or the Greek translation by Aquila/Onkelos, which has not survived apart from a few fragments.) I did not get any answers.


texts:
I've gotten the advice to ask this question apart from another question i asked (Elohim plural singular): so here it is

Bereshit 5:1 reads according to my own words: 'In/On the day that Elohim created the human being (Adam), in the Demut of Elohim He made him (the human being), male (masculine) and female (feminine) He created them (the male and female) and He blessed them, and called their (the male and female human beings) name Human (Adam)'.

Bereshit 1:27 also reads: 'And Elohim created the human being (Adam) in His Tzelem, Elohim created him (the human) male (masculine) and female (feminine) He created them'.

Question:
How could one human being be made made male and female or masculine and feminine, and how does that image fit to the Tzelem and Demut of Elohim?


texts: Does one make bracha "borei minei besamim" on incense or spice smoke?

texts:
I know that when you smell "raw" spices, you say "borei minei besamim". Can you make this bracha on the smokey smell when these spices are being burned? Some examples:

If you burn an incense stick where the stick is made from a combo of
cinnamon, lavender and other spices.
If you use mesquite wood chips in your barbecue, can you make the
bracha when the wood is burning?
Similarly, if you put spices on the meat and the spicy smoke comes
through the meat, should you make the bracha?


texts:
Can God speak to non prophets, or do they simply become prophets the moment that God speaks to them?

Or to put it less philosophically. Can I as regular Joe ever hear the voice of God? Could God have a special message for non prophet Joe? Or does God's message to me make me a retroactive prophet?


texts: Sefer explaining why Aggada stories in the Talmud are located where they are

texts:
I saw a great reason given by R' Tzaddok HaKohen about why the story about the destruction of the Beis Hamikdash and its aftermath is specifically in Maseches Gittin 55b-58a:
(adapted from a Jewish Standard article)

Rav Zadok HaKohen in his work Peri Zadik on Bereishit explains that [...] everything in the Talmud is in its purposeful place.
The Talmudic texts about the Churban are in Masechet Gittin which deals with the laws of the divorce because the destruction of the Temple and the resultant exile of the Shechina, God’s heavenly presence, is akin to a divorce between God and the Jewish people.
Rav Zadok further elaborates that not only is the tractate in which an Aggadah appears carefully chosen but the chapter as well. The stories of the Hurban appear in Gittin Chapter 5 also known by its first word, HaNizakin, the Damages. Unlike much of Masechet Gittin, HaNizakin discusses damages not divorce. With the Hurban God’s presence appears to leave the Jewish people. However, God never truly severs his relationship with his people since the covenant between God and the Children of Israel is everlasting. Rather, the Churban is more like a Nezek, with the relationship becoming damaged, but never truly broken.

I know the Maharal/ Maharsha/ Ein Yaakov have well known Aggadic works/ commentaries. Is this question addressed by each Aggada story?
If not does a sefer exist that explains the reason as to why the Aggadic portions of the Talmud are specifically located where they are?
(for ex: the Rabbah bar bar Chana stories in Bava Basra 73b-74b)


texts:
It is forbidden to say foreign gods names or even to cause other to say them (see Shemot 23, 13 and Sanhedrin 63b).

What about saying the word without intention for a deity?

For example, (1) a lot of Western words derive from Greek mythology: chronometer, thalassotherapy, uranium, neptunium, plutonium...?

And (2) even worse: project athena, apollo mission...? (Because here the name itself is used).

Or, (3) names of planets Venus, Mars, Jupiter...? (that were pagan gods?...)

More subtle, (4) suppose the greek city Athens comes from a Greek goddess name; would be permitted to say it, given the intention is for the city only?


texts: Targum on Obadiah 1:3 a Reference to Rome?

texts:
The prophecy of Obadiah concerns the fate of Edom. Obadiah 1:3 reads,

זְדוֹן לִבְּךָ הִשִּׁיאֶךָ, שֹׁכְנִי בְחַגְוֵי-סֶלַע מְרוֹם שִׁבְתּוֹ; אֹמֵר בְּלִבּוֹ, מִי יוֹרִדֵנִי אָרֶץ.
The pride of thy heart hath beguiled thee, O thou that dwellest in the clefts of the rock, his habitation on high; that sayest in thy heart: 'Who shall bring me down to the ground?

Jonathan ben Uziel's Targum on the bolded phrase reads,

דשרי בשיני כיפא ברוֹמא מותביה
That dwells in the teeth of a rock, ברוֹמא is his habitation

Note the voweling! I did not consider the word ברוּמא which would mean on high, because that is not the way the text is vowelized. The plain meaning of the verse leans this way, But Jonathan ben Uziel was not a strict translator. See for example earlier in verse 3 where he introduces the eagle/vulture simile when it doesn't occur in verse until verse 4.
What does ברוֹמא mean? I first read it plainly as in Rome, but then I encountered Jastrow, who brings down two options: in haughtiness or in Rome. Both seem to fit, if I'm not mistaken.


texts: Where can I get Malbim on Mishley in English?

texts:
I am trying to find "Malbim on Mishley: The Commentary of Rabbi Meir Leibush Malbim on the Book of Proverbs".
The book seems to be out of stock. I cannot even find a used version. Any ideas how and where I can get it?


texts: I have heard that a haftorah klaf (scroll) is still considered kosher and usable if the Ta'amei Mikra have been written on it. Yet I've always been told that this is not true for a Torah scroll. Why the difference?


texts:
The Gemorah in Bava Metzia 71a teaches that one must give preference to a Jew when offering out loans even when it will cause a loss to the lender since he won't be able to charge interest.

Practically today how does gemorah effect the halacha? Must I buy kosher brands? Must I hire a Jew who is less qualified than a non-jew?


texts: Is da'as torah a natural process or supernatural?

texts:
When an individual is said to have da'as torah, is that the natural consequence of intense expertise or is it a God given supernatural gift bestowed on those deserving?

For example, it would be foolish to ignore the investment advice of a world class financial expert. This could be described with a term like "da'as finance". Is da'as torah simply the same concept as applied to Torah or is it a supernatural gift akin to prophecy?

Sources please.

[edit: To clear things up, I am defining da'as torah as the ability of sufficiently knowledgable Talmidei Chachamim to issue advice and/or rulings about issues which are not sourced in halchah. If you wish to use a different definition, that's fine but make that clear in your answer.]


texts: Can you embarrass someone privately if you think that the person MAY be embarrassed publicly?

texts:
Can you embarrass someone privately if you feel that not saying something may cause that person public embarrassment, i.e., s/he may be embarrassed by multiple people? The key word here is MAY, but you calculate that there is a high likelihood that public embarrassment would occur but, there's no guarantee.

As an example - You notice that a man has his zipper open and part of his privates are visible. Telling him this will embarrass him, but if you don't tell him, and he walks in the street, the public will embarrass him, most likely. Of course, there is a possibility that the man may close his zipper before going out, or even if others in the public will see what's going on, no one outside may mention anything, in which case no one publicly would embarrass him at all.


texts: What's the earliest source for the Third Temple?

texts: I know Yechezkel writes about a Temple which is generally considered to be the Third. Is this explicitly identified as a Third Temple anywhere there? Otherwise, what's the earliest source that explicitly says there will be a Third Temple?


texts: Is this true that Elijah and Elisha didn't perform any miracle to help Jews?

texts:
A Christian source claims:

  I assure you that there were many widows in Israel in Elijah’s time,
  when the sky was shut for three and a half years and there was a
  severe famine throughout the land. 26 Yet Elijah was not sent to any
  of them, but to a widow in Zarephath in the region of Sidon. 27 And
  there were many in Israel with leprosy[g] in the time of Elisha the
  prophet, yet not one of them was cleansed—only Naaman the Syrian.” (Luke 4)

Christians claim that Elijah and Elisha helped almost nobody. The 2 people that they did help happen to be non-Jewish.

Is this true?

If it were true, why is it true?

What did Naaman and the widow do that not one of the Israelites did that Elijah and Elisha helped those gentiles instead of any Jew?


texts: Is the Halachic concept of taste transfer accepted by scientists and chefs?

texts:
Halacha (Jewish Law) tells us that when food is cooked in a pot, that pot absorbs the taste of that food (to what degree is impossible to know). When that pot is then used to cook something else, the taste that was previously absorbed in the pot is now released from the pot into the food. See here for more background information.

My question is, is this idea exclusive to halachic circles? For example, are there chefs who will never cook one type of food in a pot that was used to cook another type of food, because the taste mixture will ruin the cooking food?  Alternatively, are there chefs who specifically choose to cook with certain pots because the flavors that have been previously absorbed in those pots enhance the food being cooked?  (I remember a TV comedy that had a similar idea.)

I'm asking because I'm looking for a good analogy/example I can use to explain to non-jewish people why we need to do Hagala (purge flavor by boiling) on a non-Kosher pot before we can use it.

As a parallel, after I read this article, I started using allergies as an example of why just cleaning something is not enough. From the article:

  “It’s heartbreaking,” he continues. “My wife and I are brought to tears regularly because Brianna can’t go to her little friends’ birthday parties and have cake and ice cream and everything that they get to have. We can’t really go out and have a meal anymore, because people at restaurants just aren’t aware enough of the severity of it and what it takes to cause a reaction. They don’t understand that if a surface was used to prepare something that had dairy in it, no matter how well you clean that surface, those proteins are still there. And if you prepare my daughter’s food there, she’s going to have a reaction.


texts: How to calculate 60 days from tekufat tishri for any given year?

texts:
I'm trying to pin down an algorithm for calculating when to start saying ותן טל ומטר in diaspora. (In Israel it begins 7 Cheshvan.) I've gotten that we need to know how many centuries passed since 1500 on the Gregorian calendar, but I'm confused how to factor in the fact that three years every 400 years was treated differently.

How would you calculate Tekufat Tishri for any given year?


texts:
Toiveling Keilim on Shabbos
Can you Toivel Keilim on Shabbos?


texts: Why is fasting not permitted in the first 12 day of Sivan?

texts:
The Yahrzeit for my father falls on 7 Sivan. In the past it was always my custom to fast on 8 Sivan unless it was a Shabbat. Then I would fast on 9 Sivan.

This came up in discussion with my (Chabad) Rabbi.
He told me that it is forbidden to fast on the first 12 days of Sivan. Why is that?


texts: How did Tamar know that Yehuda will sleep with a prostitute?

texts:
Following the question "understanding-Tamars-plan", how was Tamar sure Yehuda will turn to a prostitute the moment he sees her?

Needless to say how bad is the transgression and how great and pious Yehuda was. Was it something from their previous experiences we don't know about?


texts: 12 hours to the day, 12 hours to the night

texts: Why is a day and night divided into 12 hours? Why not 10 hours? What is the significance of 12?


texts: Why don't we have to work every non-Shabbos day?

texts:
We are told multiple times in the Torah

ששת ימים תעבוד
Six days you should work.

But many people do not actually work 6 days a week. For example, in the United States, Sunday is considered a weekend day, and many people do not attend work on that day. Indeed, many retired people hardly ever do any of these kinds of work. Are all of the people who do not attend work on Sunday, or at all, in error?!
Or perhaps this refers to all kinds of work like housework, homework, etc. Are people who don't do those things (or whatever is meant by taavod) every day in violation of the mitzvah?
I am leaving the topic of melacha aside for now because I would assume that if the verse were talking about it, it would use that word specifically.  I am aware that it also says:

ששת ימים תעשה מלאכה

but I am assuming that is discussing a separate requirement. Is that an incorrect assumption?


texts: Why are laws of damages written in the middle of the story of the blasphemer?

texts:
In the end of Parshas Emor (Vayikra 24:10-23), the Torah relates the story of someone who blasphemed and his punishment. After the person blasphemes, he is put in a prison while Moshe proceeds to ask G-D what the punishment should be.

In verses 14-16, G-D responds with the punishment for blasphemy (stoning). In verse 23, the Torah relates that Moshe conveyed the law and the punishment was implemented. However, in the middle of the prophecy where G-D details the laws of blasphemy, it seems to go slightly off-topic, detailing various laws about damages (verses 17-22).

Why did the Torah feel the need to include these seemingly off-topic laws in the middle of dealing with the blasphemer?

(As an aside, I could think of only 2 other instances offhand where Moshe goes to ask G-D for a specific ruling (Pesach Sheni and the daughters of Tzelafchad), and in both of those situations, the answers were limited in scope to the question. There is also the case of the Mekoshesh (H/T @DoubleAA) which has a one-Passuk response (Devarim 15:35) that is limited to just addressing the case at hand)


texts: How are "Orthoprax" people treated in halacha?

texts:
There are several cases of people who identify as "Orthoprax", meaning that they follow mitzvot, but do not believe in G-d.  (Most notable have been the cases of anonymous rabbis like the aforelinked one, whose congregations don't know they are closet atheists).
Halacha treats secular Jews, who don't keep Shabbat, etc., differently in many matters (for example, with kashrut).  How does halacha treat someone who does not believe in G-d, but fulfills the mitzvot (almost the opposite of Reform Jews who believe in G-d, but don't fulfill mitzvot)?  Does it make a difference when an apikoros is shomer mitzvot?


texts: Connection between the akeidah and bikkurim

texts:
Some of the akeidah selichos, particularly for days 4 and 5 of teshuvah (Artscroll Minhag Lita), contain references to the mitzvah of bikkurim.  Are there any other sources that draw this comparison and flesh it out a bit more?

I would guess that the basis of the comparison is that bikkurim are called a korban and brought to (but not on) the mizbeyach, but then they go to the Kohanim and become their property, like terumah with some of the restrictions of maaser sheni.  Similarly, Yitzchak was brought to the mizbeach but not offered on it and went on to live a mostly normal life, with some restrictions.


texts: Dedications and Their Expected Life-Span

texts:
Several years ago I was doing an observation in a private secular pre-school. The school is housed in the former Talmud Torah building still owned by the synagogue immediately next door. (The student body is predominantly non-Jewish but the school  is obligated to follow kashrut and close on Jewish Holy Days.) The complex was built during the 1950’s when the neighborhood had a small, but not necessarily Orthodox, Jewish population. The Jewish population stagnated until the late nineties/early aughts when the area started growing into the thriving Orthodox neighborhood it is today. Since the children attend nearby yeshivot, there is no need for a Talmud Torah. While in a classroom, I noticed a rather large plaque peaking out of the side of a bookcase. It was a dedication to parents who died during the 1950’s. There were similar plaques hidden behind classroom furniture throughout the building.

This got me thinking. Is there a halakhic source for the length of time a dedication (yahrzeit plaque, dedication of a room/building, Torah scroll, etc. must be displayed/ maintained? I am aware that sometimes when a congregation disbands,  they arrange for yahrzeit plaques to be transferred elsewhere. But what about situations such as I cited above? Doesn’t the contributor have some right to expect their dedication remains accessible as long as the building is owned by the congregation? Say someone donated big bucks to have a building dedicated to a loved one and a year or two from then an even wealthier person donates money to rename the building?


texts: Could the destroyer in Egypt discriminate?

texts:
In Rashi's comment to Shemos 12:22 we read

  ואתם לא תצאו וגו': מגיד שמאחר שנתנה רשות למשחית לחבל אינו מבחין בין צדיק לרשע
  …once permission has been given to the משחית (destroyer) to damage, it does not distinguish between a righteous and a wicked person.

however earlier in pasuk 13 Rashi cites the mechilta which states

  אבל הווה הוא במצרים הרי שהיה מצרי בביתו של ישראל, יכול ימלט, תלמוד לומר ולא יהיה בכם נגף, אבל הווה במצרי שבבתיכם, הרי שהיה ישראל בביתו של מצרי, שומע אני ילקה כמותו, תלמוד לומר ולא יהיה בכם נגף
  …Thus, if an Egyptian were in an Israelite's home, you'd suppose he could escape [the plague]; the verse tells us "there won't be a נגף, plague, in you" — but there will be in the Egyptian in your homes. Thus, if an Israelite were in an Egyptian's home, I'd understand he'd be smitten like him; the verse tells us "there won't be a נגף, plague, in you".

Are the terms משחית and נגף equivalent? What "force" is doing the killing exactly?
Can whatever agency that is performing the killing on that night differentiate between Jew and Egyptian?
If it can discriminate, what is the need for the sign of the blood?
Why does Rashi in pasuk 22 contrast צדיק and רשע and not Jew/Egyptian?
Why is this destructive force able to differentiate between firstborn and non-firstborn of the Egyptians but nothing else?


texts: Why do we say a longer Tachanun on Mondays and Thursdays compared to the other days of the week?


texts: 'Alcoholic drinks' and 'reward' are both "שכר"

texts:
Alcoholic drinks (and drunkenness) and reward seem like rather disparate ideas! Is there a reason why they might imply one another and do any commentaries interchange between the two to bring some deeper understanding?

A relevant example can be found in Pirkei (6:2) where it says "... do not read  ('inscribed') חָרוּת, but rather חֵרוּת ('freedom')":

  וְאוֹמֵר (שמות לב) וְהַלֻּחֹת מַעֲשֵׂה אֱלֹהִים הֵמָּה וְהַמִּכְתָּב מִכְתַּב אֱלֹהִים הוּא חָרוּת עַל הַלֻּחֹת, אַל תִּקְרָא חָרוּת אֶלָּא חֵרוּת, שֶׁאֵין לְךָ בֶן חוֹרִין אֶלָּא מִי שֶׁעוֹסֵק בְּתַלְמוּד תּוֹרָה.

Examples can be found here.

Example of שכר for reward:

  "וַאֲכַלְתֶּם אֹתוֹ בְּכָל מָקוֹם [...] כִּי שָׂכָר הוּא לָכֶם חֵלֶף
  עֲבֹדַתְכֶם בְּאֹהֶל מוֹעֵד." (במדבר יח, פסוק לא)

Example of שכר for alcohol:

  "מִיַּיִן וְשֵׁכָר יַזִּיר, חֹמֶץ יַיִן וְחֹמֶץ שֵׁכָר לֹא יִשְׁתֶּה;
  וְכָל מִשְׁרַת עֲנָבִים לֹא יִשְׁתֶּה. " (במדבר ו, פסוק ג)


texts: Is immersion of utensils (tevila) valid before koshering (hagala)?

texts:
dinonline (here) writes that

  The hagalah [koshering of non-kosher utensils] should be done before
  the tevila [immersion in a mikve].

Are there other sources saying so? Are there sources saying the reverse is also possible?

I do not understand the rationale for the above and would like to know more.