Well, as you have pointed out The Bible permits slavery. This is your first "line of defense" - make it clear that The Bible never **approves** of slavery, that it only **permits** slavery.



Once you've established that, you can bring in this:

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mat%2019:3-9&multilayout=cols&version1=49&version2=9



Notice what Jesus says here. Basically, he says: "God permitted people to divorce because he knew that people would not be able to live according to Mosaic Law if divorce.was banned. However, in fact divorce is wrong."



SO - does The Bible give us reason to believe that slavery is also wrong, even though The Bible very clearly *permits* slavery?



http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=col%203:9-11&multilayout=cols&version1=49&version2=9



http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=gal%203:28&multilayout=cols&version1=49&version2=9



Clearly, Christianity teaches that all people are equal in the sight of God. If they are equal in God's sight, how dare we presume to own those who are our equals in station? Just as with divorce, what we see here is a clear case of God **permitting** slavery even though God himself refuses to recognize a difference in station between slave owner and slave. Clearly, the morally superior thing to do here is to see humankind as God sees us - equal.





I recommend that you also investigate abolitionism. The abolitionist movement was primarily a Christian movement, and they supported their cause largely on Biblical grounds (but also on Democratic grounds).



Jim, http://www.bible-reviews.com

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